I mean let’s look at the data suggesting “no”:
spoiler
no contraceptiveless effective contraceptives means greater chance of pregnancy, so sex is less common from the get-go- no mass-produced lubes or oils if you’re into that, or benefit from it.
- Lower Quality beds, and no beds if you go back far enough
- Oh yeah, gay sex was literally illegal for most of recorded history.
- patriarchy and presumably low discussion about how to improve sex for all participating parties.
- Most people slept in the same room as their children a long time ago, so they would presumably do-the-nasty while their children were present and could hear/see.
But, arguments in favour of ‘yes’?
spoiler
- Kids had to work and could wander around more in villages, meaning husband and wife might be able to go at it during the day time in an unoccupied house (some people get to achieve this today with intricate planning)
- that gritty period-drama vibe makes all things sexier.
- Use of words like “ravish”
- uh-oh, guess I’m out of stuff!
What do you all think?

I’m going to guess no, overall, though I’m sure there are times and societies where there were exceptions to that.
For many of the reasons you listed, and also less ease of access to cleaning oneself both before and after. And I’m guessing on average, it’s gotten a lot better for women especially, what with people y’know, acknowledging they can cum too.
In medieval Europe it was well understood that women can orgasm, indeed it was a common belief that it was necessary for pregnancy.
Women be cumming